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To: Proud_Infidel who wrote (777)7/21/2003 5:52:39 PM
From: Math Junkie  Read Replies (1) of 786
 
Yes, I suppose. I don't know why you think it is so obvious. It's equally obvious to me that Congress has the constitutional authority to decide which crimes will be classed as felonies and which as misdemeanors. But since I am not a lawyer, I am willing to entertain the possibility that there could be some case law that I might not know about.

"What if after a murder, they rounded up all those who owned guns in the area and charged each gun owner because he or she was the possible murderer? I think it is quite clear to any sane individual that this is not what the founding fathers had in mind!"

Well, right now, there is no law to support doing that. The issue is whether Congress ought to pass this law, is it not? If it weren't for the second amendment, Congress would be completely within its rights to pass legislation outlawing gun ownership based on such reasoning. Unfortunately I know of no constitutional provision that requires acts of Congress to be well thought-out.
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